CompTIA RC0-C02 英語版の受験に対する対策

 

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RC0-C02試験番号:RC0-C02 日本語講座
試験科目:「CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Recertification Exam for Continuing Education」
最近更新時間:2017-06-02
問題と解答:310

>> RC0-C02 日本語講座

 

NO.1 A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been
made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-
concept details have emerged on the Internet. A security advisor within a company has been asked to
provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following
BEST describes how the security advisor should respond?
A. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers.
Advise management of any 'high' or 'critical' penetration test findings and put forward
recommendations for mitigation.
B. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a
recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors
providing the web application software.
C. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted
data.
Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options.
D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into
"maintenance mode" until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch.
Answer: C

RC0-C02 指導   RC0-C02 関連題   
Explanation:
The first thing you should do is verify the reliability of the claims. From there you can assess the
likelihood of the vulnerability affecting your systems. If it is determined that your systems are likely
to be affected by the exploit, you need to determine what impact an attack will have on your hosted
data. Now that you know what the impact will be, you can test the exploit by using the proof-of
concept code. That should help you determine your options for dealing with the threat (remediation)
.
Incorrect Answers:
B: While penetration testing your system is a good idea, it is unnecessary to hire an independent
security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. You know what the
vulnerability is so you can test it yourself with the proof-of-concept code.
C: Security response should be proactive. Waiting for the threat to be verified by the software vendor
will leave the company vulnerable if the vulnerability is real.
D: Bringing down the web servers would prevent the vulnerability but would also render the system
useless. Furthermore, customers would expect a certain level of service and may even have a service
level agreement in place with guarantees of uptime.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John
Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 375-376

NO.2 A company provides on-demand virtual computing for a sensitive project. The company
implements a fully virtualized datacenter and terminal server access with two-factor authentication
for access to sensitive data. The security administrator at the company has uncovered a breach in
data confidentiality.
Sensitive data was found on a hidden directory within the hypervisor. Which of the following has
MOST likely occurred?
A. A virtual guest was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a privilege escalation attack to
gain unauthorized access.
B. A host server was left Un-patched and an attacker was able to use a VMEscape attack to gain
unauthorized access.
C. A stolen two factor token and a memory mapping RAM exploit were used to move data from one
virtual guest to an unauthorized similar token.
D. An employee with administrative access to the virtual guests was able to dump the guest memory
onto their mapped disk.
Answer: B

RC0-C02 対策書   

NO.3 A security administrator is tasked with increasing the availability of the storage networks while
enhancing the performance of existing applications. Which of the following technologies should the
administrator implement to meet these goals? (Select TWO).
A. Snapshots
B. Dynamic disk pools
C. LUN masking
D. Multipath
E. vSAN
F. Deduplication
Answer: B,D

RC0-C02 トレーニング   
Explanation:
We can use dynamic disk pools (DDP) to increase availability and improve performance compared to
traditional RAID. Multipathing also improves availability by creating multiple paths to the storage (in
case one path fails) and it improves the performance by aggregating the performance of the multiple
paths.
DDP dynamically distributes all data, spare capacity, and protection information across a pool of
drives.
Effectively, DDP is a new type of RAID level, built on RAID 6. It uses an intelligent algorithm to define
where each chunk of data should reside. In traditional RAID, drives are organized into arrays, and
logical drives are written across stripes on the physical drives in the array. Hot spares contain no data
until a drive fails, leaving that spare capacity stranded and without a purpose. In the event of a drive
failure, the data is recreated on the hot spare, significantly impacting the performance of all drives in
the array during the rebuild process.
With DDP, each logical drive's data and spare capacity is distributed across all drives in the pool, so all
drives contribute to the aggregate 10 of the logical drive, and the spare capacity is available to all
logical drives. In the event of a physical drive failure, data is reconstructed throughout the disk pool.
Basically, the data that had previously resided on the failed drive is redistributed across all drives in
the pool. Recovery from a failed drive may be up to ten times faster than a rebuild in a traditional
RAID set, and the performance degradation is much less during the rebuild.
In computer storage, multipath 1/0 is a fault-tolerance and performance-enhancement technique
that defines more than one physical path between the CPU in a computer system and its massstorage
devices through the buses, controllers, switches, and bridge devices connecting them.
As an example, a SCSI hard disk drive may connect to two SCSI controllers on the same computer, or
a disk may connect to two Fibre Channel ports. Should one controller, port or switch fail, the
operating system can route the 1/0 through the remaining controller, port or switch transparently
and with no changes visible to the applications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: LUN masking is used to control which LUNs are visible to specific servers. It does not improve the
availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
B: A snapshot is a point in time image of the data on a SAN used for backup or recovery purposes. It
does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
C: A vSAN is local storage on hypervisor servers combined together to create a "virtual SAN". A vSAN
does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
F: Deduplication is the process of eliminating multiple copies of the same data to save storage space.
It does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing
applications.
References:
http://blog.glcomp.com/2013/06/what-is-dynamic-disk-pooling.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multipath_l/0

NO.4 A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer
(CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still
found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE
hardening initiative.
A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing
patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders
and managed accordingly.
B. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them
instead of the CFO.
C. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been
given patch management and SOE hardening products.
D. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers
and the remediation takes time to complete.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security controls can never be run 100% effective and is mainly observed as a risk mitigation strategy
thus the gaps should be explained to all stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The CFO's main concern would be of a monetary nature as per the job description and not the IT
security infrastructure or patch management per se.
B: The audit findings are not invalid since the audit actually found more missing patches on some
systems.
C: The chief information security officer is the executive in the company that has the responsibility
over information security in the organization; the CISO does not necessarily select controls.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John
Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 204, 213

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